Dutch star Xavi Simons may soon be on his way out of Germany as two top Premier League clubs are racing to bring him to London.
According to recent reports, Chelsea and Arsenal are both making moves to sign the talented RB Leipzig forward.
Simons, who impressed with standout performances in the Bundesliga, is believed to be keen on a new challenge. With just two years left on his contract, Leipzig might be forced to cash in now rather than risk losing him for less in 2026.
Simons, 22, has already made a name for himself across Europe. Known for his creativity, pace, and sharp decision-making, the Dutchman has drawn attention from several elite teams across Europe.
Insiders suggest the deal could be done for a fee below €70 million, a figure that many believe is a bargain in today’s market.
In fact, Chelsea are reportedly preparing to offer a large portion of the fee up front in order to edge past Arsenal in the race.
Arsenal, on the other hand, are looking at various options and may focus more on bringing in Sporting CP striker Viktor Gyokeres instead.
Arsenal fans might also be disappointed to learn that while Simons is a top target, he is not the only name being discussed.
The Gunners have been linked with Crystal Palace attacker Eberechi Eze, but sources say it is unlikely both players will arrive in the same window.
